Thought Provoking Questions: Lesson 4
THE ROLE OF WOMEN IN THE CHURCH
1) Basic Passages of Scripture.
a) 1 Corinthians 11:5 5 But every woman that prayeth or
prophesieth with her head uncovered dishonoureth her head:
for that is even all one as if she were shaven.
b) 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 34 Let your women keep silence
in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to
speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as
also saith the law. 35 And if they will learn any thing,
let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for
women to speak in the church.
c) 1 Timothy 2:11-15 11 Let the woman learn in silence
with all subjection. 12 But I suffer not a woman to teach,
nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not
deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the
transgression. 15 Notwithstanding she shall be saved in
childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and
holiness with sobriety.
2) Definition of the terms used by Paul.
a) 1 Cor. 14:34 – silence: to keep silence, hold one’s
peace. Thayer. speak: is used several times in 1 Cor. 14;
the command prohibiting women from speaking in a church
gathering, vv. 34, 35, is regarded by some as an injunction
against chattering, a meaning which is absent from the use
of the verb everywhere else in the N.T.; it is to be
understood in the same sense as in vv. 2, 3-6, 9, 11, 13,
18, 19, 27-29, 39. W.E. Vine
b) 1 Cor. 14:35 – learn: denotes (a) to learn . . ., to
increase one’s knowledge, frequently to learn by enquiry,
or observation, e.g., … 1 Cor. 14:35. . . . W. E. Vine
husband – denotes in general, a man, an adult male (in
contrast to anthropos which generically denotes a human
being, male or female); it is used of man in various
relations, the context deciding the meaning; it signifies a
husband [texts omitted]. See Man. W. E. Vine. [Neither
Thayer nor Vine lists 1 Cor. 14:35 as illustrative of this
word. The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament does
include the passage as illustrative of “husband” as opposed
to man. Keep in mind, however, that the context determines
the meaning.] shame, to arouse your shame, 1 Cor. 6:5;
15:34. (Ps. 34:26 (Ps. 35:26); Ps. 68:8,20 (Ps. 69:8,20);
respect, reverence, Sophocles, Polybius, Josephus, others.)
Thayer.
c) 1 Tim. 2:11 – silence (from the adjective h`su,cioj,
which see; the feminine expresses the general notion
(Winer's Grammar, 95 (90)), cf. aivti,a, avreth,, e;cqra,
etc.) (from Homer down); 1. quietness: descriptive of the
life of one who stays at home doing his own work, and does
not officiously meddle with the affairs of others, 2 Thess.
3:12. 2. silence: Acts 22:2; 1 Tim. 2:11f. Thayer.
d) 1 Tim. 2:12 – to teach; the Septuagint for to teach;
1. absolutely, a. to hold discourse with others in order to
instruct them, deliver didactic discourses: Matt. 4:23;
21:23; Mark 1:21; 6:6; 14:49; Luke 4:15; 5:17; 6:6; John
6:59; 7:14; 18:20, and often in the Gospels; 1 Tim. 2:12.
b. to be a teacher (see dida,skaloj, 6): Rom. 12:7. c. to
discharge the office of teacher, conduct oneself as a
teacher: 1 Cor. 4:17. Thayer. to usurp authority (a
Biblical and ecclesiastical word); hence, a. according to
earlier usage, one who with his own hand kills either
others or himself. b. in later Greek writings one who does
a thing himself the author"; one who acts on his own
authority, autocratic, equivalent to auvtokra,twr an
absolute master; cf. Lobeck ad Phryn., p. 120 (also as
above; cf. Winer's Grammar, sec. 2, 1 c.)); to govern one,
exercise dominion over one: tinj, 1 Tim. 2:12. Thayer.
silence – see above.
3) Basic principles learned from these passages.
a) Women prayed and prophesied in the early church in
some context. 1 Cor. 11:5.
b) Women were to keep silent in the churches. 1 Cor.
14:34.
c) Women are not permitted to speak [in the churches]. 1
Cor. 14:34.
d) Women are commanded to be under obedience, as also
saith the law. 1 Cor. 14:34.
e) If they will learn anything let them ask their
husbands at home. 1 Cor. 14:34.
f) It is a shame for women to speak in the church. 1
Cor. 14:34.
g) Women are to learn in silence and subjection. 1 Tim.
2:11.
h) Women are not to usurp authority over the man. 1 Tim.
2 :11.
i) Women are to be in silence. 1 Tim. 2:11.
j) These injunctions are based on Eve’s conduct in the
Garden of Eden. 1 Cor. 14:34; 1 Tim. 2:13-14.
4) Questions that may be answered by the application of
these passages and principles.
a) Question: I would like for you to address the subject
of women and authority in the secular world. In the form of
a question, “Can a woman occupy a position of authority
over a man in the secular world?”
Answer: The short answer is “Yes.” Scripture addresses
the relationship between men and women in the church and in
the home. It does not address that relationship in the
secular world, e.g., the world of business or education or
politics. We do know that Lydia was a seller of purple.
Acts 16:14. Her husband is not mentioned. The worthy woman
of Proverbs 31 bought real estate and planted vineyards.
She was married, but the role, if any, of her husband in
these activities is not revealed. While there are many
opinions about the roles that women ought to play in the
secular realm, there are no limitations placed upon women’s
role in the secular world in Scripture. There is one caveat
– the woman who is active in the secular realm cannot, with
God’s approval, neglect the role that He has given her in
the home. This is not to say that the Bible teaches that a
woman’s place is only in the home. It does not. The truth
is that the same thing is true of the man – his activity
outside the home does not relieve him of the God-given
duties that he has in the home.
b) Question: Simply does God allow women to head/lead
the church? I am quite comfortable with women ministers and
as heads of churches. Am I correct in my feelings?
Answer: The scriptures teach that a woman is not
permitted to preach or lead in the church. 1 Timothy
2:11-12. The word “teach” in this passage is from the Greek
didaskoo, defined by Thayer as “to deliver didactic
discourses.” One cannot preach without delivering a
“didactic discourse”; women are forbidden to deliver a
“didactic discourse”; therefore, women are forbidden to
preach. Further, this passage forbids the exercise of any
authority whatsoever by women over men in matters of a
religious nature. Evangelists are to “rebuke with all
authority.” Titus 2:15. Therefore, a woman cannot preach or
evangelize. 1 Timothy 3 and Titus 1 require a bishop or
elder to be the “husband of one wife”; thus a woman cannot
be a bishop or elder. Many today argue that Paul’s
prohibition was based on culture and that, since culture
has now changed, women preachers are permissible. Such
arguments are specious. Paul’s argument was based on the
conduct of Adam and Eve (1 Timothy 2:13-15), not culture.
No change in culture can change God’s Word.
But did Joel not prophesy (Joel 2:28-32, quoted by
Peter, Acts 2:16-21) that “I will pour out of my Spirit
upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall
prophesy”? Certainly he did, but remember that Peter said
of that which transpired on Pentecost that “this,” i.e.,
Pentecost, was that which was spoken by the Prophet Joel.
Acts 2:16. God had promised that he would pour out his
Spirit on all flesh, and it was this “pouring out” that had
just been witnessed. Acts 2:33. At least two things are
worthy of note. 1. Peter did not say that the daughters
would prophesy in the worship service. That they prophesied
in some setting is established by 1 Cor. 11:5. Moreover, we
know that Phillip had four daughters who prophesied. Acts
21:9. To the extent that “prophesy” can be expanded to
include teaching, we know that Priscilla joined Aquila in
teaching Apollos the word of the Lord more perfectly. Acts
18:24-28. Somehow I imagine that Timothy never stopped
learning from his mother and grandmother as long as they
lived. 2 Tim. 1:5. I know that I didn’t.
Lenski more than likely described well what was
prophesied and what happened: “The chief effect of the
Spirit’s activity is always prophesying, not in the narrow
sense of foretelling future events, but in the broad and
far more important sense of voicing the saving and blessed
will of God to men everywhere.” The gospel is now for all
flesh from servants to handmaidens. Acts 2:18. They may all
teach the gospel.
c) Question: I would like to know where in the Bible do
you find that it is OK to use the computer and the
internet. I would also like to know if women are not to be
given authority in the church why did Paul speak of Lydia
as the leader of a church and why did Jesus hold women in
high regard?
Answer: Your real question seems to be the second
question. I am assuming that the first question is meant to
apply to the use of the computer and the internet in the
church, though it does not say so. The two questions. Taken
together, imply that (1) since the computer and the
internet are used in the church, and (2) since Jesus held
women in high regard, and (3) since Paul spoke of Lydia as
the leader of a church, that it is inconsistent not to
permit women to have positions of authority in the
church.
You need to recognize that difference between specific
and generic commands. When God gives a specific command man
must not deviate from it. For example, when God told Noah
to build the ark using a specific type of wood, all other
types were eliminated. God did not have to list every other
type of wood and tell Noah not to use each one of them.
Christ’s telling his disciples to go into all of the world
and preach the gospel is an example of a generic command.
He did not tell them how to go or how to preach. Man may go
on his feet, on a mule, in a car, or in an airplane. Using
any of these means he has still done nothing but go. Having
gone, he may preach in person, by letter, by radio and
television, or by the internet. Using any of those methods
he has still done nothing but preach. As for Lydia, the
record in Acts 16 does not reveal that Paul ever called her
the leader of a church. There is not even a hint of a
suggestion that Lydia was the leader of the women who on
the Sabbath had gathered by the river to pray. In fact, she
seemed to be from Thyatira, not Philippi where Paul was
preaching. She was the first convert to Paul’s preaching.
She did own or rent a house in Philippi which she used in
plying her trade. Finally, if others of the women were
converted and a congregation was established with only
female members, Lydia could, in the absence of Paul, assume
a leadership role without usurping authority over the male.
(1 Tim. 2:12.) As long as Paul was present he would
undoubtedly be the leader of the congregation until elders
were appointed. (Titus 1:5.) You are, of course, correct
that Jesus held women in high regard. However, that fact
does not change at all any of the commands of scripture
related to the role of women in the church. The husband is
to be the head of the wife (Eph. 5:23). At the same time
the husband is to hold the wife in such high regard that he
loves her as Christ loved the church and gave himself for
it (Eph. 5:25).
There is no inconsistency. It is difficult in today’s
world to maintain the teaching of Scripture in regard to
woman’s role in the church, especially since much of the
denominational world has turned from it and gives women
roles in violation of the teachings of Scripture. God has
given men specific roles; He has given women specific
roles. When those roles are changed there is an
inconsistency between the practice of man and the will of
God. For a further discussion of this subject see the
lessons on 1 and 2 Timothy on this web site.
d) Question: I was reading questions and answers as well
as the theological stance that you support with your
website, and I have a couple of questions regarding women’s
roles. Is it not true that in the Greek language the nature
and relationship of men and women are based on the context
of different words? That is, whether a man or a woman
assumes the title of spouse is dependent on the context of
the sentence. With this in mind, I can see how it may be
difficult to translate certain New Testament texts clearly
and honestly. My questions concern 1 Corinthians 14:34 as
well as any other scripture relating to women. The New
International Version of 1 Corinthians 14:34 is as
follows:
“women should remain silent in the churches. They are
not allowed to speak, but must be in submission”
The Message interprets the verse this way:
“Wives must not disrupt worship, talking when they
should be listening.”
The implications of the alternate translations can be
quite different. In The New International Version, it is
evident that all women should stay away from leadership
roles within the church, yet the second translation
indicates that wives, in the context of their relationship
to their families, should keep silent. This appears to
imply a more domestic meaning. Perhaps wives should not
argue personal or family matters in front of the church,
but should keep silent out of respect for the church and
their family. With this in mind, could it be possible that
there is room for women to actively participate in
leadership roles in the church? Also, could this indicate a
possible fallacy with the way we look at scripture, the way
it is translated, and the authority given to it?
Thank you for taking the time to hear and answer my
question.
Answer: You are correct that the same Greek word is used
for “woman” and “wife” with the meaning being determined by
the context. The same is true of the Greek word for “man”
and “husband.” Every translation that I checked that has
been published as a generally accepted (though some are
questioned) translation translates 1 Cor. 15:34 as “women.”
I am not familiar with The Message translation. However,
the portion of 1 Cor. 15:34 that you cite from it
demonstrates that it is at best a paraphrase and at worst a
poor commentary. The Greek speaks of silence, not
disruption. Further, the Greek says nothing about “when
they should be listening.” While such translations
sometimes provide interesting thoughts, they should never
be relied on for serious Bible study. Further, the
assumption that The Message implies a more domestic context
is without support from the context. It clearly refers to
the assembly. Even The Message admits that the context is
worship. If the translation “women” is correct, it is not
limited to married women. Moreover, given the context,
there is no reason to limit the word to wives. Why would
Paul place restrictions upon married women preventing their
preaching and teaching, but leave the single women free to
do so. Additionally, there were certainly unmarried women
in the congregation. See chapter 7. Some conclude that
wives must be in view because the word for man or husband
(plural) in v. 35 is translated “husbands.” Based on the
context “men” would be the better translation. This is so
because clearly Paul is not speaking of husbands and wives
in this context, but of the two sexes as such. Thus, in
both places the general translation is dictated. Finally,
female leadership in the church must also pass the test of
1 Tim. 2:12. The woman is not suffered to teach or to usurp
authority over the man. To the contrary she is to be in
silence.
Confusion sometimes arises because people fail to note
the difference between the setting in 1 Cor. 14 and 1 Tim.
2. 1 Cor. 14 relates to the assembly; 1 Tim. 2 relates to a
wider context. It is compounded because it is not noted
that two different Greek words are used for “silence” or
“silent.” The word in 1 Cor. 14 means to be silent. We
might say “hold your peace,” and some suggest that it
should be so translated in 1 Cor. 14. The word in 1 Tim. 2
means to be quiet or peaceful or submissive. It is used in
1 Pet. 3:4 where it is associated with “meek.” In the
broader context outside of the assembly it is quiet,
peaceful submission that is commanded, not silence or
refraining from speaking. 1 Tim. 2 only restricts the woman
from teaching and thereby usurping authority over the
man.
Some suggest that these passages have no application in
today’s world because we have outlived them and our culture
is different. Note, however, that the restrictions are not
based on culture, but on creation and Eve’s role in the
original transgression. These reasons are neither local nor
historical and must not be so treated.
There is nothing in these passages that indicates a
possible fallacy in the way we view Scripture and the
authority given to it. The Message does suggest that we
must be careful in the way that we translate it. Many of
the modern speech translations go far afield from the Greek
text, most generally in a manner that supports unscriptural
theology and thus supports arguments to support
unscriptural positions. It is unfair to broadly condemn The
Message translation given the lack of information; it is
not unfair based on what is quoted from it here to advise
reading it with suspicion and care.
e) Question: I have read several different answers and
also have looked into this subject myself and still have
some questions regarding [the role of] women in church. 1:
If a woman is to keep silent in the church does it also
mean not to testify as we do in our church? 2: What if you
are married to a man that is "slow" of learning? Then what?
3: Our preacher believes that it is okay for a woman to
preach and my husband and I both believe that it is wrong?
If so, how do you try to explain it to them?
Answer: The answers to these questions may be found in
the answers to Questions 22, 40, 41, 44, 49, 65, and 90.
Testifying is not mentioned in them, but testifying is a
form of preaching or teaching when done in the assembly and
thus falls within the prohibition. Assuming that the
translations “wife” and “husband” are correct, a wife may
still seek teaching from another individual outside the
assembly or ask that her question be addressed in the
assembly. Given the context, the better translation should
be “woman” and “man.” (See Question 44.) Women may also ask
questions in the Bible study hour. (See Questions 65 and
90.)
f) Question: I'm a little confused and maybe just
misunderstood. You said that when it came to singing that
used musical instruments outside the church building, it
was against scripture, that assembling is worship which is
all the time. But when you talk about women being silent
you differentiate assembly for Sunday morning worship and
Bible class. Maybe the Greek words are different and if
they are please let me know. If the assembly is
worshipping, then women should be silent even in Bible
study.
Answer: The problem is that two different settings are
being confused. First, the worship assembly is always
worship. There may be other reasons for assembly, such as
an incorporated congregation having a business meeting
where under the law the members are the “shareholders.” An
assembly of the entire congregation might also be called
for imparting information. But the worship assembly is
always worship. It is this assembly in which women are
forbidden to take leading roles. They are not restricted
from participating in the worship assembly. For instance,
the women sing. The women participate silently in prayer,
as do all men other than the one leading prayer. Women
participate in giving of their means. Women worship
silently in the reading and study of God’s word, as do all
men other than the one leading. Women participate in
commemorating the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ
in the Lord’s Supper, but do so silently as do all men with
the exception of those men presiding and serving.
However, not all worship is done in the church assembly.
There is private worship such as family or personal
devotionals. Songs sung to God in worship, whether in the
assembly or in private, must be acapella according to the
teaching of scripture.
The Bible class does not generally involve worship in
song, but if it does, it would undoubtedly be as worship
and must be acapella. The Bible class itself, however, is
generally not considered to be a worship assembly of the
church; rather it is an opportunity for Bible study and
learning, much like a school classroom. That process often
involves the asking and answering of questions. Any
participant is free to ask a question or to enter into a
discussion. That is the purpose for which the class has
been convened. That said, as other answers on this website
indicate, if believing men are present in the class, women
are forbidden to teach. Questions 22, 40, 41, 44, 49, and
65 all discuss various aspects of this issue.
g) Question: I know women should not preach on the
pulpit. But what about women teaching teenagers? Most of
our teens are baptized and their ages range from 15 to 20
yrs. They include both young men and women. Can you give me
biblical back up? Thanks.
Answer: Three primary passages control public discourse
by women – 1 Corinthians 11:5; 14:34-35; 1 Tim. 2:11-12.
The totality of these passages establishes that a woman is
forbidden to preach or teach in the assembly. For a fuller
discussion of 1 Cor. 11 and 14, see the class notes on that
passage on this web site. 1 Tim. 2:11-12 proclaims that a
woman is not to teach or to usurp authority over a man.
“Teach” in this passage is from didasco, which means to
give a didactic discourse. These passages clearly do not
apply to all settings. For example, Priscilla, with her
husband Aquilla, privately taught Apollos, a preacher, the
way of the Lord more perfectly. 1 Tim. 2 prohibits two
things – didactic discourse and usurping authority over a
man. The word translated “usurp authority” means to
exercise dominion over another. Some argue that a woman can
even give a didactic discourse if a man or men give her
permission. Not so. Man cannot give a woman the right to do
something that God has prohibited.
A teenage Bible class is not private, but neither is it
the assembly of the church. In this day when children of
Christian parents are obeying the gospel at young ages, the
young boys are just that – young boys. They are certainly
not men within the meaning of the above passages. However,
it is my judgment that, even though the older teenage boys
are not “men” (contrary to their own opinion), it would be
better for their class to be taught by a man. In fact, this
would be a good time to follow Titus 2:3-5. Divide the
older boys and girls. Let men teach the boys and women
teach the girls. There are many lessons that are suited for
each that are not suited to the other.
Finally, the upper age limit of your question is 20. By
college and by the age of 20 boys have become young men.
Male teachers should certainly be used.
h) Question: Can a woman baptize?
Answer: Baptizing a person is not teaching. If it
violates any scriptural injunction it would be that the
female is not to exercise a leading role in the worship.
Even if it were otherwise all right, it is best to keep in
mind that some things that are lawful are not expedient. 1
Cor. 6:12; 10:23. Obviously if there is no man present a
woman not only can but should. Personally, I have never
seen a situation where such was necessary, but I can
envision its happening. While living in Lubbock, my wife
taught a class for women at the jail. Many of the students
were baptized. Had I or others not been available she
absolutely should have performed the baptism.
Where we need to be careful is in looking for some
hypothetical situation where we are “comfortable” with
something that is questionable and then apply it to a
situation where comfort is not the applicable standard.
This has been done with the introduction of musical
instruments into young people’s gatherings, which, when the
comfort is complete, is followed by introducing it into the
worship service. First Colony has recently taken that step.
Some argue against the necessity of baptism based on the
hypothetical of a person’s being killed on the way to the
baptistery, concluding that if he is excused we are all
excused. They never stop to ask by what authority he or
they are excused. They never stop to ask if they really
want to be excused on that basis, i.e., an untimely death.
Some want to be saved like the thief on the cross, they
assume without baptism (but see the lesson from last week),
but when you start preparing the cross they change their
minds. When they say that that is not what they meant, that
they just wanted to avoid baptism for the remission of
sins, they admit that the hypothetical doesn’t apply to
them. That leaves them in knowing intentional rebellion
against the will and commands of God. They cannot be saved
at the hour of untimely death by crying out, “But Lord, I
was going to be baptized next Sunday.”
God's Plan of Salvation
You must hear the gospel and then understand and recognize that you are lost without Jesus Christ no matter who you are and no matter what your background is. The Bible tells us that “all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God.” (Romans 3:23) Before you can be saved, you must understand that you are lost and that the only way to be saved is by obedience to the gospel of Jesus Christ. (2 Thessalonians 1:8) Jesus said, “I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.” (John 14:6) “Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.” (Acts 4:12)
You must believe and have faith in God because “without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.” (Hebrews 11:6) But neither belief alone nor faith alone is sufficient to save. (James 2:19; James 2:24; Matthew 7:21)
You must repent of your sins. (Acts 3:19) But repentance alone is not enough. The so-called “Sinner’s Prayer” that you hear so much about today from denominational preachers does not appear anywhere in the Bible. Indeed, nowhere in the Bible was anyone ever told to pray the “Sinner’s Prayer” to be saved. By contrast, there are numerous examples showing that prayer alone does not save. Saul, for example, prayed following his meeting with Jesus on the road to Damascus (Acts 9:11), but Saul was still in his sins when Ananias met him three days later (Acts 22:16). Cornelius prayed to God always, and yet there was something else he needed to do to be saved (Acts 10:2, 6, 33, 48). If prayer alone did not save Saul or Cornelius, it will not save you either. You must obey the gospel.
(2 Thess. 1:8)
You must confess that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. (Romans 10:9-10) Note that you do NOT need to make Jesus “Lord of your life.” Why? Because Jesus is already Lord of your life whether or not you have obeyed his gospel. Indeed, we obey him, not to make him Lord, but because he already is Lord. (Acts 2:36) Also, no one in the Bible was ever told to just “accept Jesus as your personal savior.” We must confess that Jesus is the Son of God, but, as with faith and repentance, confession alone does not save. (Matthew 7:21)
Having believed, repented, and confessed that Jesus is the Son of God, you must be baptized for the remission of your sins. (Acts 2:38) It is at this point (and not before) that your sins are forgiven. (Acts 22:16) It is impossible to proclaim the gospel of Jesus Christ without teaching the absolute necessity of baptism for salvation. (Acts 8:35-36; Romans 6:3-4; 1 Peter 3:21) Anyone who responds to the question in Acts 2:37 with an answer that contradicts Acts 2:38 is NOT proclaiming the gospel of Jesus Christ!
Once you are saved, God adds you to his church and writes your name in the Book of Life. (Acts 2:47; Philippians 4:3) To continue in God’s grace, you must continue to serve God faithfully until death. Unless they remain faithful, those who are in God’s grace will fall from grace, and those whose names are in the Book of Life will have their names blotted out of that book. (Revelation 2:10; Revelation 3:5; Galatians 5:4)